Consider a situation where a Spearman's correlation coefficient between two variables was found to be significantly different from zero, but the Pearson's correlation was not. How would you explain this?
- Data has outliers
- Data is normally distributed
- Relationship between variables is linear
- Relationship between variables is non-linear
If Spearman's correlation is significantly different from zero, but the Pearson's correlation is not, it suggests that the relationship between the variables is not linear. Spearman's correlation, unlike Pearson's, can capture monotonic relationships that are not necessarily linear.
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